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Rollo
9th May 2007, 08:05
A rather interesting question came up at work today that none of us really had any idea about, mainly because it's never been done before and being accountants, it's outside the of realms of our pathetic medical type knowledge.

Suppose for a second that it were possible to do a testicular transplant, ie/ take someone's nads and implant them in someone else. Assuming you could successfully connect up the necessary plumbing (for want of a better word) and rejection wasn't a problem, then who's children would be produced?

If it takes 70 days from raw chemical to the production of a Spermatozoon, so would the testes continue to produce the donor's DNA indefinately? Would they take on the production of the DNA of the recipient? Or would they produce some sort of hybrid?

The reason why this applys to males only, is that there is no direct evidence showing that females produce new eggs after birth. So although if one were actually were to do an Ovarian transplant then it wouldn't matter one bit, since they'd all be of the donor (because the recipient wouldn't have produced any after the time of birth).

Are there any applications for such an answer in the world of fighting cancer?
AND
Do I get a fiver for starting the most bizarre thread ever posted on here? :D

Daniel
9th May 2007, 08:14
I don't know but you're not having mine :mark:

LeonBrooke
9th May 2007, 08:18
Oh yes, this is... something I think about a lot... :erm:

Given that the sperm cells themselves are derived from cells found in the walls of the tubes which connect to the vas deferens, they would be sperm containing the DNA of the testicle donor.

:uhoh:

This would never change - as long as they worked they'd produce sperm with the DNA of the donor.

Jaws
9th May 2007, 08:30
Rollo,

May I politely suggest a few lagers over lunch, it dulls the brain, stops you thinking too much. I'm sure it will help.

Ian McC
9th May 2007, 08:34
Accountants spending all day talking bollocks? :uhoh:

Move along people, nothing to see.................

:p :

Erki
9th May 2007, 09:03
You see, I'm not the only one. :p :

schmenke
9th May 2007, 16:43
Nutty thread :mark:

Erki
9th May 2007, 17:12
I guess it took a lot of balls to post such a thread.

fandango
9th May 2007, 22:27
Eh......, come again?

courageous
18th May 2007, 20:11
Given that the sperm cells themselves are derived from cells found in the walls of the tubes which connect to the vas deferens, they would be sperm containing the DNA of the testicle donor.
.


Is this a theory that you have tested (testes? no? forget it then!)

LeonBrooke
20th May 2007, 08:23
:laugh: